A 33-year-old male presents generally unwell with a 6 hour history of increasing testicular swelling and tenderness. On further questioning he is sexually active and has recently had unprotected sex with multiple partners. On examination, the pain is localised to the posterior-lateral aspect of the testis.
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Which of the following is false?
What are the important causes of epididymo-orchitis?
Which of the following antibiotic regimens would be appropriate?
On discharge who should this patient be referred to?